Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 07:51

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why do narcissists keep calling on the phone after years of separation?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

The Roman Empire at the time of Christ kept meticulous records. Why then, is there no record of the trial of Jesus?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.